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Title: Ted Cruz is Not Eligible to run for president: A Harvard Law professor close-reads the Constitution
Source: [None]
URL Source: [None]
Published: Jan 20, 2016
Author: Einer Elhauge
Post Date: 2016-04-06 15:24:09 by lana
Keywords: None
Views: 5485
Comments: 95

Ted Cruz is Not Eligible to run for president: A Harvard Law professor close-reads the Constitution

The closer you study the Constitution, the weaker Ted Cruz's case squares with the actual meaning of "natural-born"

Einer Elhauge

Topics: Ted Cruz, Elections 2016, Editor's Picks, Donald Trump, Natural-born citizen, Can Ted Cruz be president, Can Ted Cruz run for president, constitution, aol_on, Business News, Life News, News, Politics News

(Credit: Reuters/Chris Keane)

The argument that Ted Cruz is eligible to run for president initially looked strong, then probable but uncertain. But closer examination shows it is surprisingly weak.

The constitutional text provides that a president, unlike other elected officials, must be a “natural born citizen.” This language could not mean anyone born a citizen or else the text would have simply stated “born citizen.” The word “natural” is a limiting qualifier that indicates only some persons who are born citizens qualify. Moreover, when the Constitution was enacted, the word “natural” meant something not created by statute, as with natural rights or natural law, which instead were part of the common law.

At common law, “natural born” meant someone born within the sovereign territory with one narrow exception. The exception was for children of public officials serving abroad, which does not help Cruz because his parents were not serving the United States when he was born in Canada. The case of John McCain was entirely different because he was born in a U.S. territory (the Panama Canal Zone) and to U.S. parents who were serving the U.S. military.

The argument for Cruz rests on some old statutes, namely English statutes enacted before the U.S. Constitution and U.S. statutes enacted just after. But neither turns out to be persuasive on closer examination.

The English statutes extended natural-born status to persons born abroad whose father was any English subject, rather than only a public official. Some argue that the constitutional framers meant to refer to this statutory redefinition of the term “natural born.” But that position contradicts the ordinary meaning that the word “natural” indicates a non-statutory meaning. Moreover, Prof. Mary McManamon offers convincing evidence that the Framers meant the common law meaning. James Madison himself said in 1789 that the U.S. used the place of birth rather than parentage. In any event, Cruz’s father was not a U.S. citizen when he was born (again unlike McCain), so these English statutes do not help Cruz.

The U.S. statute in 1790 provided that “children of citizens of the United States” that are born abroad “shall be considered as natural born Citizens.” This has been thought the strongest evidence for Cruz’s position since so many 1790 congressmen had participated in the Constitutional Convention. However, this statute did not say these children were natural-born citizens. It instead carefully said they “shall be considered as” natural-born citizens, suggesting that Congress thought they were not natural-born citizens but should be treated as such. Indeed, there would have been no need to pass the statute if they were already understood to be natural-born citizens.

Further, when this Act was reconsidered in a few years, Madison himself pointed out that Congress only had constitutional authority to naturalize aliens, not U.S. citizens, and reported a bill that amended the statute to eliminate the words “natural born” and simply state that “the children of citizens of the United States” born abroad “shall be considered as citizens.” This indicates that Madison’s view was that children born abroad of U.S. citizens were naturally aliens, rather than natural born citizens, and thus could be naturalized by Congressional statute but should not be called “natural born.” Congress adopted this amendment in 1795.

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#31. To: Vicomte13 (#30)

because of the 14th Amendment, he'd be natural born even if BOTH of his parents were foreign citizens

United States v. Wong Kim Ark, 169 U.S. 649 (1898) excluded the children of invaders from automatic citizenship. Of course, the Rats and the GOPe will never treat the invaders as invaders,

Roscoe  posted on  2016-04-06   17:44:25 ET  Reply   Trace   Private Reply  


#32. To: Roscoe (#29)

That was before the Fourteenth Amendment; since then, see 166 U.S. 226, 233, 236-37 (1897).

A government strong enough to impose your standards is strong enough to ban them.

ConservingFreedom  posted on  2016-04-06   17:51:30 ET  Reply   Trace   Private Reply  


#33. To: ConservingFreedom (#32)

That was before the Fourteenth Amendment

The 14th Amend. says nothing about eminent domain. Or incorporation.

In Kelo, the Court effectively chose to protect original intent.

Roscoe  posted on  2016-04-06   18:06:52 ET  Reply   Trace   Private Reply  


#34. To: ConservingFreedom (#32)

166 U.S. 226, 233, 236-37 (1897).

BTW, you didn't bother to actually read the decision, did you?

The Chicago, Burlington & Quincy Railroad Company lost big time, with the Court holding, "The requirement that compensation be made for private property taken for public use imposes no restriction upon the inherent power of the State by reasonable regulations to protect the lives and secure the safety of the people."

Roscoe  posted on  2016-04-06   18:20:30 ET  Reply   Trace   Private Reply  


#35. To: Vicomte13, lana (#1)

Natural Born is in contradistinction to naturalized.

Yes. It is also just the Americanized version of of the English natural born subject. Also, in the early use of the term by John Jay, it was written "natural born citizen," giving clear emphasis to the word born.

nolu chan  posted on  2016-04-06   18:22:32 ET  Reply   Trace   Private Reply  


#36. To: Roscoe (#31)

United States v. Wong Kim Ark, 169 U.S. 649 (1898) excluded the children of invaders from automatic citizenship. Of course, the Rats and the GOPe will never treat the invaders as invaders,

Illegal aliens are not invaders. They're illegal immigrants. You don't employ invaders in businesses and homes.

But look, it's easy to get the answers to all of these things: litigate them, and send them up to the Supreme Court.

Who wins the election will determine who controls the court, and how the court answers.

So, it's Hillary or Trump who will decide. You pretty much know how Hillary will decide most things, and Trump.

Vicomte13  posted on  2016-04-06   18:27:34 ET  Reply   Trace   Private Reply  


#37. To: nolu chan (#35)

Yes. It is also just the Americanized version of of the English natural born subject. Also, in the early use of the term by John Jay, it was written "natural born citizen," giving clear emphasis to the word born.

The fight will be endless until it's settled by litigation...or by it not mattering.

By the "Immaculate Conception" theory of natural birth, both parents have to be born on US soil of US-soil-born parents for a child to be natural born.

Trump's mother comes from Scotland, so according to some cranks he's not natural born either.

And even if the Supreme Court rules that he is, some cranks will take the position that this was not "the original intent" (as if they know what the founders "intended") and still won't accept somebody who wasn't "immaculately conceived" as natural brn

Vicomte13  posted on  2016-04-06   18:31:08 ET  Reply   Trace   Private Reply  


#38. To: Vicomte13 (#36)

1. You don't employ invaders in businesses and homes.

2. it's easy to get the answers to all of these things: litigate them, and send them up to the Supreme Court.

1. Criminals do. It's illegal to employ them in businesses and homes.

2. Nope. It's a political question. Congress could and should declare them invaders.

Roscoe  posted on  2016-04-06   18:33:24 ET  Reply   Trace   Private Reply  


#39. To: Roscoe (#38)

It's a political question. Congress could and should declare them invaders.

There are insufficient votes in Congress to do anything like that. Congress is moving in the opposite direction.

Vicomte13  posted on  2016-04-06   18:35:24 ET  Reply   Trace   Private Reply  


#40. To: Vicomte13 (#39)

There are insufficient votes in Congress to do anything like that.

Yep. Too many cucks.

Roscoe  posted on  2016-04-06   18:39:28 ET  Reply   Trace   Private Reply  


#41. To: ConservingFreedom (#32) (Edited)

"That was before the Fourteenth Amendment"

United States v. Wong Kim Ark, 169 U.S. 649 was decided in 1898. I'm curious. When did you think the 14th amendment was ratified?

misterwhite  posted on  2016-04-06   18:42:21 ET  Reply   Trace   Private Reply  


#42. To: misterwhite (#41)

When did you think the 14th amendment was ratified?

Its "interpretation" mutates from moment to moment.

Roscoe  posted on  2016-04-06   18:46:48 ET  Reply   Trace   Private Reply  


#43. To: Roscoe (#42)

"Its "interpretation" mutates from moment to moment."

Ratified in 1868, it took the U.S. Supreme Court 100 years to come to the conclusion that, hey, the 14th amendment means the BOR applies to the states.

misterwhite  posted on  2016-04-07   8:44:07 ET  Reply   Trace   Private Reply  


#44. To: Roscoe (#34)

The Chicago, Burlington & Quincy Railroad Company lost big time, with the Court holding, "The requirement that compensation be made for private property taken for public use imposes no restriction upon the inherent power of the State by reasonable regulations to protect the lives and secure the safety of the people."

My citing that case had nothing to do with the specific plaintiff ... nor is there any evidence on the table tha any of Trump's uses of eminent domain have done anything "to protect the lives and secure the safety of the people."

A government strong enough to impose your standards is strong enough to ban them.

ConservingFreedom  posted on  2016-04-07   10:08:22 ET  Reply   Trace   Private Reply  


#45. To: misterwhite (#41)

United States v. Wong Kim Ark, 169 U.S. 649 was decided in 1898.

Relevance?

A government strong enough to impose your standards is strong enough to ban them.

ConservingFreedom  posted on  2016-04-07   10:09:46 ET  Reply   Trace   Private Reply  


#46. To: ConservingFreedom (#44)

My citing that case had nothing to do with the specific plaintiff

Or the issue being discussed.

Roscoe  posted on  2016-04-07   10:19:29 ET  Reply   Trace   Private Reply  


#47. To: Roscoe (#33)

The 14th Amend. says nothing about eminent domain. Or incorporation.

I'll take the Court's reasoning over your say-so: "Due process of law, as applied to judicial proceedings instituted for the taking of private property for public use means. therefore, such process as recognizes the right of the owner to be compensated if his property be wrested from him and transferred to the public. The mere form of the proceeding instituted against the owner, even if he be admitted to defend, cannot convert the process used into due proces of law, if the necessary result be to deprive him of his property without compensation."

A government strong enough to impose your standards is strong enough to ban them.

ConservingFreedom  posted on  2016-04-07   10:19:53 ET  Reply   Trace   Private Reply  


#48. To: ConservingFreedom (#47)

I'll take the Court's reasoning

The 14th Amend. says nothing about eminent domain. Or incorporation.

And the Court's reasoning in Kelo laughed at your position.

Roscoe  posted on  2016-04-07   10:22:30 ET  Reply   Trace   Private Reply  


#49. To: ConservingFreedom (#45)

Relevance?

You said that case was decided before the 14th amendment. What's relevant is that you were wrong.

misterwhite  posted on  2016-04-07   10:26:15 ET  Reply   Trace   Private Reply  


#50. To: misterwhite (#49)

He's trying to argue that the 14th Amendment retroactively and posthumously changed the minds of the Founders and Framers. It's just flat bizarre.

Roscoe  posted on  2016-04-07   10:30:56 ET  Reply   Trace   Private Reply  


#51. To: Roscoe (#33)

In Kelo, the Court effectively chose to protect original intent.

That may be one of its effects - a broader effect, as stated in the dissent which Scalia (and Thomas) joined, is that 'To reason, as the Court does, that the incidental public benefits resulting from the subsequent ordinary use of private property render economic development takings "for public use" is to wash out any distinction between private and public use of property--and thereby effectively to delete the words "for public use" from the Takings Clause of the Fifth Amendment.' And this is so for its application to federal action as well, since nothing in the ruling excludes that.

A government strong enough to impose your standards is strong enough to ban them.

ConservingFreedom  posted on  2016-04-07   10:50:17 ET  Reply   Trace   Private Reply  


#52. To: misterwhite (#49)

You said that case was decided before the 14th amendment.

Did I? In which post and with exactly what words?

A government strong enough to impose your standards is strong enough to ban them.

ConservingFreedom  posted on  2016-04-07   10:51:53 ET  Reply   Trace   Private Reply  


#53. To: Roscoe (#48)

The 14th Amend. says nothing about eminent domain. Or incorporation.

I'll take the Court's reasoning over your say-so: "Due process of law, as applied to judicial proceedings instituted for the taking of private property for public use means. therefore, such process as recognizes the right of the owner to be compensated if his property be wrested from him and transferred to the public. The mere form of the proceeding instituted against the owner, even if he be admitted to defend, cannot convert the process used into due process of law, if the necessary result be to deprive him of his property without compensation."

And the Court's reasoning in Kelo laughed at your position.

Wrong as usual - Kelo in no way contradicts that compensation is required when a state exercises eminent domain, but broadens the meaning of "public use" that is a requirement for a state to exercise eminent domain.

A government strong enough to impose your standards is strong enough to ban them.

ConservingFreedom  posted on  2016-04-07   10:56:54 ET  Reply   Trace   Private Reply  


#54. To: Roscoe (#50)

He's trying to argue that the 14th Amendment retroactively and posthumously changed the minds of the Founders and Framers. It's just flat bizarre.

Your blatant and clumsy lies are just flat bizarre.

A government strong enough to impose your standards is strong enough to ban them.

ConservingFreedom  posted on  2016-04-07   10:57:28 ET  Reply   Trace   Private Reply  


#55. To: misterwhite (#43)

Ratified in 1868, it took the U.S. Supreme Court 100 years to come to the conclusion that, hey, the 14th amendment means the BOR applies to the states.

The Court ruled in 1897, "Due process of law, as applied to judicial proceedings instituted for the taking of private property for public use means. therefore, such process as recognizes the right of the owner to be compensated if his property be wrested from him and transferred to the public. The mere form of the proceeding instituted against the owner, even if he be admitted to defend, cannot convert the process used into due process of law, if the necessary result be to deprive him of his property without compensation." - CHICAGO, B. & Q. R. CO. v. CITY OF CHICAGO

A government strong enough to impose your standards is strong enough to ban them.

ConservingFreedom  posted on  2016-04-07   11:00:32 ET  Reply   Trace   Private Reply  


#56. To: ConservingFreedom (#54)

Busted.

Roscoe  posted on  2016-04-07   11:16:56 ET  Reply   Trace   Private Reply  


#57. To: Roscoe (#56)

In what post and with exactly what words did I disagree that 32 U.S. (7 Pet.) 243 (1833) expressed the intent of the Founders and Framers?

A government strong enough to impose your standards is strong enough to ban them.

ConservingFreedom  posted on  2016-04-07   11:20:06 ET  Reply   Trace   Private Reply  


#58. To: ConservingFreedom (#55)

The Court ruled in 1897, "Due process of law, as applied to judicial proceedings instituted for the taking of private property for public use means. therefore, such process as recognizes the right of the owner to be compensated if his property be wrested from him and transferred to the public. The mere form of the proceeding instituted against the owner, even if he be admitted to defend, cannot convert the process used into due process of law, if the necessary result be to deprive him of his property without compensation."

That ruling does not apply the Bill of Rights to the states. It applies the 14th Amendment's EXPLICIT due process requirement on the states to the states.

No state shall make or enforce any law which shall abridge the privileges or immunities of citizens of the United States; nor shall any state deprive any person of life, liberty, or property, without due process of law; nor deny to any person within its jurisdiction the equal protection of the laws.

Are you really that dim?

Roscoe  posted on  2016-04-07   11:21:43 ET  Reply   Trace   Private Reply  


#59. To: ConservingFreedom (#57)

Did you already forget your lame non sequitur, "That was before the Fourteenth Amendment..."?

Roscoe  posted on  2016-04-07   11:23:12 ET  Reply   Trace   Private Reply  


#60. To: Roscoe (#59)

non sequitur, "That was before the Fourteenth Amendment..."?

OK, so it was a non sequitur. (It was, by the by, relevant to your earlier claim, "He's [Trump] more of an originalist than Scalia was." Originalists support enforcing even those amendments not authored by the Framers and Founders.)

A government strong enough to impose your standards is strong enough to ban them.

ConservingFreedom  posted on  2016-04-07   11:31:22 ET  Reply   Trace   Private Reply  


#61. To: ConservingFreedom (#51)

Scalia (and Thomas) joined, is that 'To reason, as the Court does, that the incidental public benefits resulting from the subsequent ordinary use of private property render economic development takings "for public use" is to wash out any distinction between private and public use of property--and thereby effectively to delete the words "for public use" from the Takings Clause of the Fifth Amendment.'

The Fifth Amendment applied to the federal government, not the states. O’Connor's argument (odd that you left her name off) was premised on a position contrary to fact. BTW, Scalia didn't write a dissent. Beyond that, it was a policy argument. Legislative bodies set policy.

Roscoe  posted on  2016-04-07   11:31:41 ET  Reply   Trace   Private Reply  


#62. To: ConservingFreedom (#60)

Originalists support enforcing even those amendments not authored by the Framers and Founders.)

Enforce the Fifth Amendment to your heart's content. It wasn't a restriction on the states, and neither was it the source of the state's inherent eminent domain and police powers. You keep trying to assume your false premise.

Roscoe  posted on  2016-04-07   11:35:20 ET  Reply   Trace   Private Reply  


#63. To: Roscoe (#58)

The Court ruled in 1897, "Due process of law, as applied to judicial proceedings instituted for the taking of private property for public use means. therefore, such process as recognizes the right of the owner to be compensated if his property be wrested from him and transferred to the public. The mere form of the proceeding instituted against the owner, even if he be admitted to defend, cannot convert the process used into due process of law, if the necessary result be to deprive him of his property without compensation."

That ruling does not apply the Bill of Rights to the states. It applies the 14th Amendment's EXPLICIT due process requirement on the states to the states.

And in so applying also applies the Fifth Amendment's Takings Clause.

A government strong enough to impose your standards is strong enough to ban them.

ConservingFreedom  posted on  2016-04-07   11:36:52 ET  Reply   Trace   Private Reply  


#64. To: ConservingFreedom (#63)

And in so applying also applies the Fifth Amendment's Takings Clause.

The Court rejected your penumbral emanation.

Roscoe  posted on  2016-04-07   11:38:46 ET  Reply   Trace   Private Reply  


#65. To: Roscoe (#61)

The Fifth Amendment applied to the federal government, not the states.

The Fourteenth applied to the states.

BTW, Scalia didn't write a dissent.

Which part of "joined" did you not undestand?

A government strong enough to impose your standards is strong enough to ban them.

ConservingFreedom  posted on  2016-04-07   11:39:27 ET  Reply   Trace   Private Reply  


#66. To: Roscoe (#64)

The Court ruled in 1897, "Due process of law, as applied to judicial proceedings instituted for the taking of private property for public use means. therefore, such process as recognizes the right of the owner to be compensated if his property be wrested from him and transferred to the public. The mere form of the proceeding instituted against the owner, even if he be admitted to defend, cannot convert the process used into due process of law, if the necessary result be to deprive him of his property without compensation."

That ruling does not apply the Bill of Rights to the states. It applies the 14th Amendment's EXPLICIT due process requirement on the states to the states.

And in so applying also applies the Fifth Amendment's Takings Clause.

The Court rejected your penumbral emanation.

Clearly you're wrong.

A government strong enough to impose your standards is strong enough to ban them.

ConservingFreedom  posted on  2016-04-07   11:41:24 ET  Reply   Trace   Private Reply  


#67. To: ConservingFreedom (#65)

The part that stuck Scalia's name on a dissent by O'Connor without naming her.

Was that deliberate?

Roscoe  posted on  2016-04-07   11:46:26 ET  Reply   Trace   Private Reply  


#68. To: Roscoe (#62)

Enforce the Fifth Amendment to your heart's content.

And also the Fourteenth?

A government strong enough to impose your standards is strong enough to ban them.

ConservingFreedom  posted on  2016-04-07   11:47:51 ET  Reply   Trace   Private Reply  


#69. To: Roscoe (#67)

Which part of "joined" did you not undestand?

The part that stuck Scalia's name on a dissent

That he joined. Look into a remedial reading course.

A government strong enough to impose your standards is strong enough to ban them.

ConservingFreedom  posted on  2016-04-07   11:49:32 ET  Reply   Trace   Private Reply  


#70. To: ConservingFreedom (#66)

The Court ruled in 1897, "Due process of law, as applied to judicial proceedings instituted for the taking of private property for public use means. therefore, such process as recognizes the right of the owner to be compensated if his property be wrested from him and transferred to the public. The mere form of the proceeding instituted against the owner, even if he be admitted to defend, cannot convert the process used into due process of law, if the necessary result be to deprive him of his property without compensation."

That ruling does not apply the Bill of Rights to the states. It applies the 14th Amendment's EXPLICIT due process requirement on the states to the states.

And in so applying also applies the Fifth Amendment's Takings Clause.

"And in so applying also applies the Fifth Amendment's Takings Clause" appears nowhere in the 1897 decision.

Tsk, tsk, tsk.

Roscoe  posted on  2016-04-07   11:51:24 ET  Reply   Trace   Private Reply  


#71. To: ConservingFreedom (#69)

That he joined.

You didn't name O'Connor, just Scalia.

Transparent dishonesty.

Roscoe  posted on  2016-04-07   11:52:38 ET  Reply   Trace   Private Reply  



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