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Title: Which Versus Did the NIV Delete
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URL Source: http://www.sound-doctrine.net/VersesDeletedFromNIV.htm
Published: Oct 26, 2014
Author: Sound Doctrine
Post Date: 2014-10-26 09:58:21 by A K A Stone
Keywords: None
Views: 32504
Comments: 51
Which Bible verses did the NIV delete?
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Begin Trace Mode for Comment # 41.
"Other popular books defending the KJV-only models and castigating other translations as demonic are Gail Riplinger’s New Age Bible Versions and Which Bible Is God’s Word? Few scholars, even among evangelicals, take these views seriously; James White has produced an excellent critique in The King James Only Controversy.
Peter Ruckman even goes so far as to affirm that the Greek text must be corrected by the King James Version (CHME, 115–38). Noteworthy is his statement that “mistakes in the A.V. 1611 [King James Version] are advanced revelation.” Thus, he adds, “in exceptional cases, where the majority of Greek manuscripts stand against the A.V. 1611, put them in file 13”2 (ibid., 126, 130). Ruckman appears to believe that the English text of the King James is an inerrant, “re- inspired” version. Armed with this presupposition, adherents of this view speak of other translations of the Bible as “perverted Bibles” and those who use them as “Bible haters.”
Geisler, N. L. (2002). Systematic theology, volume one: introduction, Bible (pp. 432–433). Minneapolis, MN: Bethany House Publishers.
#29. To: GarySpFC (#26)
1) I TIMOTHY 3:16: The clearest verse in the Bible proclaiming that Jesus Christ was God. The King James Bible (KJB) reads, "And without controversy great is the mystery of godliness: GOD WAS MANIFEST IN THE FLESH. . ." The King James says, plainly, "GOD was manifest in the flesh". The NIV reads, "HE appeared in a body". The NIV "twists" "GOD" to "HE". "HE appeared in a body"? So What? Everyone has "appeared in a body"!"He" is a pronoun that refers to a noun or antecedent. There is no antecedent in the context! The statement does NOT make sense! The NIV subtilty (see Genesis 3:1) perverts I Timothy 3:16 into utter nonsense!
Here is 1 Timothy 3:16 in the Greek:
#32. To: A K A Stone (#29)
I know a little Greek. :) I Timothy 3:16 is NOT the clearest statement in the Bible that Jesus is God. Look at Colossians 2:9, which reads, "9 For in Christ all the fullness of the Deity lives in bodily form, NIV
If all the fullness of Deity lives in Christ, then how much more deity has to live in Christ for Him to be fully God? What is lacking in that passage. Clearly, the passage makes it clear Christ is God, and with far more strength than I Tim. 3:16.
#34. To: GarySpFC (#32)
Mark 11:26 -- COMPLETELY removed [also deleted from the Jehovah's Witness "Bible"]. What are you NIV readers missing? KJV: "But if ye do not forgive, neither will your Father which is in heaven forgive your trespasses."
Why is this missing from the NIV?
#36. To: A K A Stone (#34) (Edited)
From the UBS Handbook: "Mark 11:26, Text This verse, introduced into manuscripts from the parallel Mt. 6:15, is omitted by all editions of the Greek text, save Textus Receptus and Kilpatrick."
Bratcher, R. G., & Nida, E. A. (1993). A handbook on the Gospel of Mark (p. 358). New York: United Bible Societies.
The NIV does not omit the passage, rather it places the passage in the correct place. Adding to the Word is every bit as bad as taking away from it. Rev. 22
#37. To: GarySpFC (#36)
"But if ye do not forgive, neither will your Father which is in heaven forgive your trespasses."
You think this is added to? You think it shouldn't be there?
You said it was in the Textus receptus and kilpatrick.
#39. To: A K A Stone (#37)
it is not in the earlier manuiscripts.
#41. To: GarySpFC (#39)
it is not in the earlier manuiscripts.
I don't know. Because I don't read greek. God did promise that he would translate his word for all tongues though. I trust the early translations. I don't think it took an extra 500 years to get it right.
I trust those translations because they all seem to say the same thing. From what I have compared.
The NIV and other translations sometimes seem to be telling an entirely different story in some aspects.
I don't think I'll go wrong with the KJV. So if it is correct then why bother with the NIV which seems to me to have some contradictions and omissions.
Replies to Comment # 41.
#43. To: A K A Stone, GarySpFC (#41)
[GarySpFC] it is not in the earlier manuiscripts.
[A K A Stone] I don't know. Because I don't read greek.
The original manuscripts of the Old Testament were in Aramaic or [mostly] Hebrew. The Greek versions were translations referred to as the Septuagint.
#45. To: A K A Stone (#41)
I don't think I'll go wrong with the KJV. So if it is correct then why bother with the NIV which seems to me to have some contradictions and omissions.
The KJV has more problems than most modern translations, and all are imperfect. That said, the standard for which has the Spirit of Christ are those which confess Jesus Christ is both fully God and fully man.
End Trace Mode for Comment # 41.
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